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Mike Ter.Songu
Joined: Sep 14, 2007
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IS IT MORALLY RIGHT FOR THE RIGHTS OF THE INDIVIDUAL TO BE SUBJECTED TO THOSE OF THE COMMUNITY?
September 19, 2007 - 07:27 AM
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It was Jean Paul Sartre, the French philosopher, who argued that man is absolutely free and that this freedom makes man responsble for hIs/her destiny by the mechanism of choice and responsibility. If this is true, as Sartre says, then why is the indiividual expected in many places to conform to the conventional standard of the society?
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mnopq
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Re: IS IT MORALLY RIGHT FOR THE RIGHTS OF THE INDIVIDUAL TO BE SUBJECTED TO THOSE OF THE COMMUNITY?
September 22, 2007 - 08:48 AM
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Because it has been long time since men live as individuals. With level o sohistication and technological advance men started licing in groups which eventually evolved into full blown societies with seperate charactristics.
it is in such societies that men live now and in order for societies to be whole and coherent men are supposed to adhere to certain standards and respect certain values the society presupposes.
Yes, freedom means freedom of choice but it mustnt necesarily lead to chaos and man has to reconcile his choices and those of the society otherwise man might become isolated from the society.
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Mike Ter.Songu
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Re: IS IT MORALLY RIGHT FOR THE RIGHTS OF THE INDIVIDUAL TO BE SUBJECTED TO THOSE OF THE COMMUNITY?
September 29, 2007 - 07:24 AM
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I think I agree with you to some extent. Man actually is a social being who is supposed to exist alongside other beings. In which case, he should also have respect for the good of the others.
But this does not still address the issue of people being expected by society to behave according to certain patterns even when such behaviors have no bearing whatsoever on the common good. Again, contrary to your position that people began to live in groups with sophistication and advancement, research has shown that sophistication and advancement have produced more egoistic persons. however I must add that this, is not at issue here.
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